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_TrumpeT_ · 07-12-2006, 10:49 PM

I think I've read one of your previous posts saying that when you practise the first Arban interval exercise you are supposed to play the bottom notes at forte and the top notes at mf at the loudest. Can you explain the reasoning behind that please? Would the same thing apply to no.s 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7?

07-12-2006, 10:49 PM	#1 (permalink)
_TrumpeT_ Piano User Join Date: Apr 2006 Posts: 312	Arban's interval exercises I think I've read one of your previous posts saying that when you practise the first Arban interval exercise you are supposed to play the bottom notes at forte and the top notes at mf at the loudest. Can you explain the reasoning behind that please? Would the same thing apply to no.s 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7?